Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 01.07.2025 15:54
You'll usually find your answer there.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
There's no rule.
Odit dolor officiis cupiditate doloribus repellendus culpa ullam.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
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Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.